Maybe so, but under what legal theory? According to TMZ and this report in the New York Post,

* Alex Rodriguez hasn’t “knowingly” used PEDs since 2003.

* A-Rod has been tested no less than 11 times since 2011 and all his tests have come back negative.

* He feels “persecuted” (compare the length of his suspension, 211 games, with that of the Milwaukee Brewers’ Ryan Braun, 65 games).

* There’s “no proof” that A-Rod impeded MLB’s drug investigation.

These are good points, but again, if A-Rod were to sue MLB, in which court should he sue (federal or state?) and what legal theory (e.g. intentional interference with contractual relations?) could he use to get past summary judgement and get his case to trial?

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