Why is there still no slave-trade compensation fund?

Now that Black History Month is officially over, let’s get down to real business and talk about reparations for slavery.  Does the Statute of Limitations apply to major injustices like slavery?  Why can’t we create the equivalent of a 9/11 Victims’ Compensation Fund for the descendants of the victims of the slave trade?  For example, when the British Parliament voted in 1833 to abolish slavery in Britain’s colonies, the government agreed to compensate slave owners for their economic losses … but the slaves themselves received no compensation for their suffering.  Is that fair?  Shouldn’t the countries that profited the most from slavery and slave trade, countries like the US, UK, and Spain, be required to pay reparations to any person who can trace their ancestry to a slave?  (By the way, reparations for the injustice of slavery need not be in the form of a transfer payment.  Reparations could consist of an education trust fund.)

About F. E. Guerra-Pujol

When I’m not blogging, I am a business law professor at the University of Central Florida.
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1 Response to Why is there still no slave-trade compensation fund?

  1. Mr. Bean says:

    Exactly. 40 acres and a mule

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